Learning Team Comparing Educational TheoriesEED 415 Week 2 Learning Team Comparing Educational Theories

EED 415 Week 2 Learning Team Comparing Educational TheoriesEED 415 Week 2 Learning Team Comparing Educational Theories

Part 4
Question 1 of 20
Formal groups fulfill two basic functions: __________ and __________.
A. organizational; individual
B. moral; motivation
C. teamwork; productivity
D. accomplish tasks; implement complex decisions

Question 2 of 20
The group issue of “Can we do the job properly?” is addressed in which stage of the group development process?
A. Adjourning
B. Norming
C. Forming
D. Performing

Question 3 of 20
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of stages in Tuckman’s group development model?
A. Storming, Performing, Norming, Forming, and Adjourning
B. Norming, Storming, Forming, Adjourning, and Performing
C. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning
D. Forming, Performing, Norming, Storming, and Adjourning

Question 4 of 20
Expected behaviors for a given position are called:
A. attitudes.
B. roles.
C. values.
D. beliefs.

Question 5 of 20
__________ roles keep the group on track while __________ roles keep the group together.
A. Maintenance; task
B. Initiator; elaborator
C. Task; maintenance
D. Compromiser; follower

Question 6 of 20
Rejection by other group members refers to:
A. groupthink.
B. ostracism.
C. cohesiveness.
D. cross-functionalism.

Question 7 of 20
Katzenbach and Smith define a team as “a __________ number of people with __________ skills who are committed to a common purpose and performance goals.”
A. large; technical
B. small; similar
C. large; complementary
D. small; complementary

Question 8 of 20
Which of the following represent the three dimensions of trust?
A. Actual trust, perceived trust, and feedback trust
B. Perception, personality, and attitude trust
C. Overall trust, emotional trust, and reliableness
D. Individual, group, and team trust

Question 9 of 20
According to research on self-managed teams, self-managed teams have:
A. a significant effect on general attitudes.
B. no effect on productivity.
C. no significant effect on absenteeism and turnover.
D. a negative effect on specifics relating to self-management.

Question 10 of 20
__________ refers to a cohesive in-group’s unwillingness to realistically view alternatives.
A. Cross-functionalism
B. Groupthink
C. Social loafing
D. Ostracism

Question 11 of 20
__________ refers to the idea that decision makers are constrained by a variety of factors.
A. Optimizing
B. Unaided analytic strategy
C. Bounded rationality
D. Conceptual decision style

Question 12 of 20
The __________ represents a decision maker’s tendency to base decisions on information that is readily available in memory.
A. escalation of commitment
B. representative heuristics
C. nominal group technique
D. availability heuristic

Question 13 of 20
__________ is(are) acquired from experiences.
A. Tacit knowledge
B. Tacit heuristics
C. Explicit knowledge
D. Explicit heuristics

Question 14 of 20
People with a(n) __________ style of decision making are efficient, logical, practical, and systematic in their approach to solving problems.
A. conceptual
B. cultural
C. analytical
D. directive

Question 15 of 20
People with which of the following styles have a high tolerance for ambiguity and tend to focus on the people or social aspects of a work situation?
A. Directive
B. Behavioral
C. Delphi
D. Conceptual

Question 16 of 20
The tendency to stick to an ineffective course of action when it is unlikely that the bad situation can be reversed refers to:
A. escalation of commitment.
B. a directive style.
C. satisficing.
D. an aided-analytic approach.

Question 17 of 20
Breakdowns in communication, workplace politics, and organizational inertia that cause organizations to maintain a bad course of action are examples of:
A. psychological and social dominant characteristics.
B. organizational determinants.
C. project characteristics.
D. contextual determinants.

Question 18 of 20
According to research, __________ has a small but significant effect on job performance and a moderate relationship with __________.
A. participation; turnover rate
B. cooperation; job satisfaction
C. participation; job satisfaction
D. cooperation; equity
Question 19 of 20
__________ refers to the process of presenting opinions and gaining agreement to support a decision.
A. The normal group process
B. The nominal group technique
C. Brainstorming
D. Consensus

Question 20 of 20
A group process that anonymously generates ideas or judgments from physically dispersed experts is called:
A. brainstorming.
B. the Delphi technique.
C. logrolling.
D. the nominal group technique.

Part 5
Question 1 of 20
A natural tendency for evaluating or judging a sender’s message is a __________ barrier.
A. physical
B. personal
C. process
D. semantic

Question 2 of 20
__________ competence is a performance-based index of an individual’s abilities to effectively use communication behaviors in a given context.
A. Communication
B. Feedback
C. Delegation
D. Validity

Question 3 of 20
Research studies indicate that __________ is more effective than __________ in both work-related and consumer contexts.
A. aggressiveness; assertiveness
B. nonassertiveness; aggressiveness
C. assertiveness; aggressiveness
D. nonassertiveness; assertiveness

Question 4 of 20
Experts estimate that what percentage of communication is nonverbal?
A. 10-20 percent
B. 20-40 percent
C. 40-65 percent
D. 65-90 percent

Question 5 of 20
Which of the following research findings on nonverbal behavior is true?
A. Men do more touching during conversation than women do.
B. A smile conveys the same emotion in different countries.
C. Asians are taught to avoid eye contact with superiors and parents in order to show obedience and subservience.
D. Experts estimate that about 98% of every conversation is interpreted through body language.

Question 6 of 20
A person’s characteristic speaking pattern refers to their __________ listening style.
A. active
B. results
C. process
D. linguistic

Question 7 of 20
A physically dispersed task group is called a __________ team.
A. virtual
B. videoconference
C. Webbed
D. Real-time

Question 8 of 20
Which of the following influence tactics is referred to as a “soft” tactic?
A. Consultation
B. Coalition
C. Legitimating
D. Pressure

Question 9 of 20
According to researchers, the three possible outcomes of an influence attempt are:
A. compliance, resistance, and denial.
B. friendship, trust, and commitment.
C. commitment, compliance, and resistance.
D. promotion, transfer, and demotion.

Question 10 of 20
A belief that people should be paid back for their positive and negative acts is part of the __________ principle identified by Cialdini.
A. reciprocity
B. social power
C. expert power
D. coalition

Question 11 of 20
According to research, which basis of power has generally positive effects on work outcomes such as performance, satisfaction, and turnover?
A. Expert and coercive
B. Referent and coercive
C. Reward and coercive
D. Expert and referent

Question 12 of 20
In Randolph’s Empowerment Model, a manager should create autonomy through structure by:
A. clarifying goals and roles collaboratively.
B. centralizing authority.
C. establishing a strict hierarchy.
D. holding performance information at high levels of the organization.

Question 13 of 20
Political maneuvering is triggered primarily by:
A. uncertainty.
B. greed.
C. coalition.
D. social power.

Question 14 of 20
Politically, __________ are people oriented, while __________ are issue oriented.
A. networks; coalitions
B. coalitions; individuals
C. coalitions; networks
D. individuals; coalitions

Question 15 of 20
Leadership is a social influence process in which the leader seeks __________ participation of subordinates in an effort to reach organizational goals.
A. total
B. the mental
C. the voluntary
D. the physical

Question 16 of 20
What did the researchers from Ohio State Studies conclude?
A. Low structure, high consideration is the best style of leadership.
B. High structure, low consideration is the best style of leadership.
C. Moderate structure, low consideration is the best style of leadership.
D. There is no one best style of leadership.

Question 17 of 20
University of Michigan Studies researchers identified which two styles of leader behaviors?
A. Employee-centered and job-centered
B. Task-motivated and relationship-motivated
C. Consideration and initiating structure
D. Directive and supportive

Question 18 of 20
Fiedler’s theory was based on which of these premises?
A. Leaders have one dominant leadership style that is resistant to change.
B. Leaders are born, not made.
C. Situation cannot influence the leadership style.
D. Leaders must be able to modify their style to match the follower readiness.

Question 19 of 20
Situational variables that cause one style of leadership to be more effective than another are also called:
A. contingency factors.
B. readiness factors.
C. transactional leadership styles.
D. in-group exchanges.

Question 20 of 20
According to the LMX model, __________ is a partnership characterized by mutual trust, respect, and liking.
B. charismatic leadership
C. transactional leadership
D. servant leadership

The answer is in-group exchange (Can’t see the option)

Part 6
Question 1 of 20
Which of the following is achieved through formulation and enforcement of policies, rules, and regulations?
A. Division of labor
B. Centralized decision making
C. A common goal
D. Coordination of effort

Question 2 of 20
Historically, managers have maintained the integrity of the hierarchy of authority by adhering to:
A. centralized decision making.
B. a wide span on control.
C. decentralized decision making.
D. the unity of command principle.

Question 3 of 20
The __________ refers to the number of people reporting directly to a given manager.
A. division of labor
B. hierarchy of authority
C. span of control
D. unity of command

Question 4 of 20
A relatively self-sufficient entity is called a(n):
A. open system.
B. unity of command system.
C. closed system.
D. command-and-control system.

Question 5 of 20
Which of the following is a component of a psychosocial subsystem?
A. Attitudes
B. Philosophy
C. Techniques
D. Goal setting

Question 6 of 20
Which dimension of organizational effectiveness relates to inputs rather than outputs?
A. Goal accomplishment
B. Resource acquisition
C. Internal processes
D. Strategic constituencies satisfaction

Question 7 of 20
Which approach is appropriate when powerful stakeholders can significantly benefit or harm the organization?
A. Goal accomplishment
B. Resource acquisition
C. Internal processes
D. Strategic constituencies

Question 8 of 20
__________ organizations are fluid and flexible networks of multitalented people.
A. Mechanistic
B. Organic
C. Centralized
D. Narrow-span

Question 9 of 20
According to Burns and Stalker, when environment was relatively stable and certain, the successful organizations tended to be:
A. organic.
B. centralized.
C. virtual.
D. mechanistic.

Question 10 of 20
Organic organization tends to have __________ communication, where as mechanistic organization tends to have __________ communication.
A. participative; command-and-control
B. downward; two-way
C. command-and-control; participative
D. two-way; participative

Question 11 of 20
The next wave of 80 million people entering the workforce over the next 20 years are dubbed the:
A. Generation X.
B. Net Generation.
C. Generation Y.
D. Generation Z.

Question 12 of 20
The three stages in Lewin’s Change model are:
A. unfreezing, change, and refreezing.
B. evaluating, changing, and giving feedback.
C. planning, affecting, and changing.
D. benchmarking, evaluating, and encouraging action.

Question 13 of 20
Change is stabilized during __________ by helping employees integrate the changed behavior or attitude into their normal way of doing things.
A. unfreezing
B. refreezing
C. benchmarking
D. processing

Question 14 of 20
The three main components of a systems model are:
A. freezing, changing, and refreezing.
B. planning, initiating, and evaluating.
C. analysis, action, and feedback.
D. inputs, target elements of change, and outputs.

Question 15 of 20
Change efforts are more complicated and difficult to manage when they are targeted at the __________ level.
A. organization
B. group
C. individual
D. department

Question 16 of 20
A set of techniques or tools that are used to implement organizational change is referred to as:
A. benchmarking.
B. a strategic plan.
C. a mission.
D. OD.

Question 17 of 20
The education and communication strategy for overcoming resistance to change is commonly used in which of these situations?
A. Where there is inaccurate information and analysis
B. Where people are resisting because of adjustment problems
C. Where someone will clearly lose out in a change
D. Where other tactics will not work or are too expensive

Question 18 of 20
A(n) __________ organization is one that proactively creates, acquires, and transfers knowledge within itself.
A. organic
B. mission-driven
C. learning
D. benchmarked
Question 19 of 20
__________, one of factors that facilitate organizational learning capabilities, reflects accessibility of information and opportunities to observe others.
A. Experimental mind-set
B. Climate of openness
C. Operational variety
D. Concern for measurement

Question 20 of 20
Which mode of learnin.g is a methodological approach that is based on the use of organizational routines?
A. Synthetic
B. Analytic
C. Experimental
D. Structural

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